The reading comprehension section on the GRE contains four written passages (each between 200 - 500 words long) followed by a series of questions. Passages can be about any subject, but the most common themes are politics, history, science, business and the humanities. Most readers find the passages difficult because the subject matter is dry and obscure. Many are written in the passive voice and contain hard-to-pronounce words. By design, no academic background offers an "edge" or greater likelihood of success in this section of the test. The material is purposely selected to test your reading comprehension, rather than your understanding of a specific subject area. This ensures:
a) the passages do not require the reader to have any specialized knowledge in the subject area
b) everything you need to answer the questions is presented in the passage
The passages always use a formal, compact style. They are excerpted from academic journal articles, but are not printed verbatim. The original article is heavily edited to just one-quarter to one-third of its original length, retaining the formal style of the piece, but removing the introductory material, fillers and transitional phrases. Worse, passages are untitled and often start in the middle of an explanation or discussion, so the reader must jump in with no clear point of reference.
The purpose of the section is to determine if you can quickly identify the structure, objective and logic of a long, difficult passage and apply the author's premise to new situations. To succeed in the rigid timeframe (35 minutes), students must read with a different mindset than they use in most traditional coursework.
Here are the exact directions used on the exam:
Directions: Each selection in this test is followed by several questions. After reading the selection, choose the best response to each question and mark it on your answer sheet. Your replies are to be based on what is stated or implied in the selection.
We recommend that you take a few seconds at the beginning of the section and scope out the passages. Read the first line of each and determine which will be easiest for you and which will be hardest. Do the easiest one first. Don't waste precious time on a dense, difficult passage. Rack up as many "easy" points as possible first, then return to the hardest questions.
The Five Questions
The key to performing well on the passages is not your particular reading technique, but in your familiarity with the types of possible questions. In general, there are only five question types explored on the reading comprehension test:
a) Main Idea
b) Details
c) Organization
d) Extension / Application
e) Attitude / Tone
As you become familiar with the different question types, you will gain an intuitive sense for the places from which they are likely to be drawn. You can then approach these questions quickly and efficiently. Generally, the order in which the questions are asked corresponds to the order in which the main issues are presented in the passage. Early questions should correspond to information given early in the passage, and so on.
a) Main Idea Questions
Main idea questions test your ability to identify and understand an author's intent. The main idea is usually stated:
i) in the last (occasionally the first) sentence of the first paragraph
ii) in last sentence of the entire passage.
Main idea questions are usually the first questions asked in the question set.
Some common main idea questions are:
Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
The primary purpose of the passage is to ...
In the passage, the author's primary concern is to discuss. ..
Which of the following would be an excellent title for the passage?
Main idea questions are usually not difficult. If you don't catch the main idea after your first reading, review the first and last sentence of each paragraph. These will give you a quick overview of the passage.
Because main idea questions are relatively easy, the test writers try to obscure the correct answer by surrounding it with close answer-choices that either overstate or understate the author's main point. Answers that stress specifics tend to understate the main idea, while choices that go beyond the scope of the passage tend to overstate the main idea. The correct answer to a main idea question will summarize the author's argument, yet be neither too specific nor too broad. In most cases, the main idea of a passage is found in the first paragraph or in the final sentence of the entire passage.
b) Detail Questions
Detail questions refer to a minor point or to incidental information in the passage, but not to the author's main point. These questions take various forms:
According to the passage. ..
In line 25, the author mentions....for the purpose of ...
The passage suggests that which one of the following would....
The answer to a detail question must refer directly to a statement in the passage, not to something implied by it. When answering a detail question, find the point in the passage from which the question is drawn. Don't rely on memory, as many tactics are used with these questions to confuse test takers. Not only must the correct answer refer directly to a statement in the passage, it must refer to the relevant statement. The correct answer will be surrounded by wrong choices which refer directly to the passage but don't address the question. These choices can be tempting because they tend to be quite close to the actual answer.
Once you locate the sentence to which the question refers, you must read a few sentences before and after it to put the question in context. If a question refers to line 30, the information needed to answer it can occur anywhere from line 25 to 35. Even if you spot the answer in line 28, you should still read a few more lines to ensure you have the proper perspective.
c) Organization of the Passage
Because they are derived from diverse subject areas, passages can cover an infinite number of topics. While main idea questions ask the purpose of the piece, organization questions ask how the author presents his ideas. While authors can theoretically use an endless number of writing techniques, most test passages use one of just three organizational styles:
i) Compare and contrast two positions
This technique simply develops two ideas and then explains why one is better than the other. Some common comparison phrases include "by contrast" or "similarly".
Typical questions for these types of passages are:
According to the passage, a central distinction between a woman's position and a man's is:
In which of the following ways does the author imply that birds and reptiles are similar?
ii) Show cause and effect
The author demonstrates that a particular cause leads to a specific result. Sometimes this method introduces a sequence of causes and effects: A causes B, which causes C, which causes D, etc. Hence B is both the effect of A and the cause of C.
iii) State a position and then offer supporting evidence
This technique is common with opinionated passages. Many authors prefer the reverse order, where the supporting evidence is presented first and then the position or conclusion is stated.
Following are some typical questions for these types of passages:
According to the author, which of the following is required for one to become proficient with a computer?
Which of the following does the author cite as evidence that the species is dangerous?
d) Extension / Application Questions
Extension questions require you to go beyond what is stated in the passage, asking you to draw an inference, to make a conclusion, or to identify one of the author's tacit assumptions. You may be asked to draw a conclusion based on the ideas or facts presented:
It can be inferred from the passage that. ..
The passage suggests that. ..
From this we can conclude that.....
Since extension questions require you to go beyond the passage, the correct answer must say more than what is stated in the passage. The correct answer to an extension question will not require a quantum leap in thought, but it will add significantly to the ideas presented in the passage.
While extension questions ask you to apply what you learned from the passage to derive new information about the same subject, application questions go one step further, asking you to apply what you have learned from the passage to a different or hypothetical situation.
The following are common application questions:
Which one of the following is the most likely source of the passage?
Which of the following is an appropriate title for this piece?
Which one of the following actions would be most likely to have the same effect as the author's actions?
The author would most likely agree with which one of the following statements?
Which one of the following sentences would the author be most likely to use to complete the last paragraph of the passage?
To answer an application question, consider the author's perspective. Ask yourself:
what is he arguing for?
what might make his argument stronger?
what might make it weaker?
Because these questions go beyond the passage, they tend to be the most difficult. They require you to pick up subtleties of the author's attitude.
e) Attitude / Tone Questions
Tone questions discuss the writer's attitude or perspective. Does he feel positive, negative or neutral? Does he give his own opinion or objectively present those of others? Before reading the answer choices, decide whether the writer's tone is positive, negative or neutral. If you didn't get a feel for the writer's attitude on the first reading, check the adjectives used (they nearly always have a strong positive or negative connotation).
Beware of answer choices that contain extreme emotions. Passages are usually taken from academic journals, where strong emotions are considered inappropriate. The writers usually display opinions that are considered and reasonable, not spontaneous or off-the-wall. The tone or attitude of a passage closely parallels the main idea. If the author's intent is to explain the reasons for abolishing slavery, the tone is explanatory or encouraging, not negative or discouraging. The correct answer will also be indisputable. The test writers NEVER allow the correct answer to be vague, controversial or grammatically questionable.
Key Words That Identify Potential Questions
Each passage contains about 400 - 700 words and only a few questions, ensuring that you will NOT be tested on most of the specific details. Your best reading strategy is to identify the places from which questions will most likely be drawn and concentrate your attention there.
Key, pivotal words indicate contrast, warning that the author is about to either make a U-turn or introduce a counter-premise (a concession to a minor point that weakens his case). Common pivotal words include:
But Although In Contrast Even though
However Yet Nonetheless Except
Despite Nevertheless
These words show where the author changes direction, providing natural places for questions to be drawn. The test writers form questions at these junctures to test whether you followed the author's line of reasoning or got lost. Sentences containing pivotal words nearly ALWAYS contain the answer to a test question.
Handling Incorrect Answer Choices
One of the most difficult tasks in writing test questions is composing tempting, incorrect answer choices. In most cases, only two of the five choices will have any real merit. We've observed several common threads in the wrong answer choices that most test takers should consider. Be on the look-out for the following:
a) For main idea questions, incorrect choices use the wrong verb and focus on supporting details, rather than the main point of the passage. Incorrect choices also tend to either overstate or understate the author's view. Beware of extreme choices, as they are often wrong. Correct answers tend to be rational, measured responses. Other tempting incorrect answer choice are "half-right, half-wrong", incorporating some of the author's view, but not a complete match. Other wrong answers pick a point of view that is inconsistent with the author's.
b) On detail questions, incorrect answer choices distort the author's words or are exact opposites of the correct answer.
c) For inference questions, incorrect choices distort the passage's ideas and go beyond the scope of the passage. For application questions, wrong choices are not parallel or analogous to the situation in the passage.
d) Incorrect tone answers are overly emotional or the opposite of the correct answer. Some incorrect answers are odd combinations of adjectives that make no sense in real world applications, such as "detached ambivalence", "enlightened apathy", and "muffled denial".
e) Sometimes incorrect answers are logically wrong. They misrepresent the author's purpose or focus on the "what" rather than the "why" of the detail.
f) Watch for unusual or uncommon usage of words. Students sometimes overlook points in passages because a familiar word is used in an unfamiliar manner. An example is champion. As a noun, champion means a hero or accomplished person. Yet, a a verb, champion means to support or advocate.
g) Be wary of extreme answers that contain "all or nothing" buzzwords such as must, always, impossible, never, cannot, each, every, totally, all, solely and only. Few passages will be written in such an absolute tone.
Two Sample
Now we will apply all the methods we have learned to two test passages. To parallel the timing of the actual test, spend about 10 minutes on each passage.
Passage 1
Among the several hundred million cells that comprise the wondrously complex
human body, and thus to be theoretically detectable in lab tests and in
electron photomicrographs, a tiny fraction, no more than a few hundred, belong
to a curious subclass whose luminescence has a wavelength distribution so unique that
5 it long defied explanation. Such systems luminescence strongly in the visible region of the
spectrum, but some of them do so even more strongly at both shorter and longer
wavelengths: in the ultraviolet region and in the infrared regions.
10 This odd distribution of luminescence is best explained by the pairing
of a giant red blood cell and an intensely small white blood cell that is virtually
in contact with its larger companion as the two travel around a common center.
Such objects have become known as Clinging cells. On photographic plates
only the giant cell can be discerned, but evidence for the existence of the
15 tiny companion has now been supplied by magnifying instruments capable
of detecting ultraviolet luminescence at wavelengths that are absorbed by the body's
heat and therefore cannot be detected by typical analytical instruments.
The spectra of Clinging cells indicate that the giant red blood cell is surrounded by
20 very thin lipid filaments. The existence of the lipid filaments marked such objects as
being unique several decades before clinical observations finally identified the
lipid as the luminescence from the tiny companion white blood cell. Clinging cells
also flare up in outbursts indicating the ejection of material in the form of a shell
or a ring, reminiscent of the recurrent circulation of hormonal cells. Clinging cells may
25 therefore represent a transitory phase in the evolution of certain types of hormonal
systems in which there is a substantial transfer of matter from the larger partner
to the smaller.
The exact evolutionary course that turns a typical blood cell system into a clinging one is
30 a matter of conjecture. The comparatively small number of known Clinging cells
in our bodies suggests that if all binaries of modest mass normally pass through
a clinging phase in their evolution, the phase must be extremely brief, perhaps
as short as a millisecond.
1. The author's primary purpose in the passage is to
(A) demonstrate that most hormonal systems were at one time clinging
(B) dismiss current knowledge of Clinging cells as overly speculative
(C) describe Clinging cells as a distinct type of cell system
(D) present evidence that hormonal systems are formed from tiny white blood cells
(E) compare characteristics of giant red blood cells and tiny white blood cells
2. The passage implies that Clinging cell systems differ from other hormonal systems
in that the former
(A) display luminescence patterns different from those of most hormonal systems
(B) contain two cells that revolve around a common center
(C) possess far greater mass than other hormonal systems
(D) are more common in our bodies than other hormonal systems
(E) are the only hormonal systems that can be detected by electron microscopes
3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about "the luminescence"
mentioned in line 22?
(A) It causes certain large red blood cells to appear tiny to observers.
(B) It was incorrectly associated with hormonal cells in our bodies.
(C) It interferes with the clarity of photographs of most hormonal systems.
(D) It corresponds to the visible region of the light spectrum.
(E) It could not be positively identified from photomicrograph observations.
4. According to the passage, the exchange of matter within a Clinging cell system
is believed to be a process in which
(A) cell grows in mass at the expense of the other
(B) the mass of each cell remains fairly stable
(C) the mass of both cells declines
(D) both cells absorb matter emitted by other nearby cells
(E) both cells gradually return to an earlier singular state
5. The assumption that the Clinging cell phase in the evolution of some hormonal
systems "must be extremely brief " (line ) is most likely based on the fact that
(A) hormones are rapidly ejected from clinging systems
(B) few Clinging cells have been detected in our bodies
(C) the cells in a clinging pair are in close proximity to each other
(D) Clinging cells vary considerably in size from one another
(E) the outbursts of Clinging cells resemble those of hormonal cells
Passage 2
Nearly forty years ago, former President Kennedy signed
the National Reproductive Policy Act, this nation's first major federal
law addressing federal reproductive freedom. Although the nation has
now witnessed almost forty years of continuing debate
5 about abortion freedom law, a relatively new element has recent-
ly entered the controversy: the use of partial birth procedures and
their high risks in facilitating voluntary third trimester pregnancy
terminations.
10 Before the development of techniques to facilitate partial birth
abortions, when an unwanted pregnancy occurred, a govern-
ment agency often simply told a patient she could only abort during
the first trimester. Doctors performing the procedures often relied on visual
observations to determine compliance with the legal time limits.
15 Most reproductive freedom professionals consider flexible legal
guidelines an improvement over pre-1960 restrictions because it pro-
vides a factual and scientific basis for the abortion methodology
rather than an intuitive or emotional basis. Accordingly, many
reproductive freedom professionals regard formal abortion laws
20 to be neutral policy tools that can be employed by the gov-
ernment to make sound policy judgments that assure effi-
cient and appropriate procedures.
But are abortion laws and their proponents really neutral political
25 issues? Analysis of the choices that must be made in reproductive
issues makes the answer clear. Because pregnancy termination depends
on choices for which there is no a priori legal method of
deciding from among available assumptions, decisions
ultimately depends largely, if not predominantly, on values
30 positions rather than on legal precedent . Laws must now govern
partial birth abortion methodology for women's health, including a
determination of whether the procedure will cause an adverse
health effect; dose-response assessment of drugs, an analysis of the rela-
tionship between an administered dose and the incidence of
35 the adverse health effect; exposure assessment, an analysis of
the processes and pathways by which contact with a labor-inducement drug
creates opportunity for exposure; and risk characterization,
the process of identifying the incidence of adverse health
effects under various clinical conditions-requires the appli-
40 cation of some judgment that must ultimately rely on some-
thing less than legally-proven principles. Indeed, many
of the choices that must be made in completing a risk assess-
ment must be viewed as pure values judgments. For example,
in the hazard identification portion of an assessment, the deci-
45 sion on picking a confidence level to determine statistically
whether there has been a positive determination of whether a
labor-inducement drug is a hazard is a pure values judgment.
Decisions on reproductive freedom based on current risk assess-
50 ment procedures should therefore be viewed primarily as eth-
ical choices rather than as technically dictated conclusions. It
is important in an age of increasing scientific complexity that
interested parties attempt to understand the values positions
and ethical issues that underlie legally derived policy
55 choices. Government must bring greater clarity to the debate
about reproductive freedom through identification of the
embedded values positions and issues in therapeutic abortion
procedures.
6. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) Therapeutic abortion is an improvement over past methods because it is
based more on factual evidence than on intuition.
(B) Former President Kennedy did more than his predecessors to protect the reproductive freedom
of women by approving the use of first trimester abortion.
(C) Though perhaps more radical than previous birth control measures, partial birth
abortion is a value-free process.
(D) While the concept of partial birth abortion is enticing from a scientific viewpoint, this
method is so expensive that its use is impractical on a large scale.
(E) Since past abortion procedures were effective in the first trimester, the
government should not have approved further restrictions on its use or implementation.
7. All of the following are explicitly mentioned in the passage as part of the adverse health effects EXCEPT
(A) visual observation
(B) exposure assessment
(C) analysis of labor-inducement drugs
(D) risk characterization
(E) dose-response assessment
8. The author most probably mentions "confidence level" (line 45) in order to
(A) demonstrate that partial birth procedures are safer than past abortion methods
(B) question the accuracy of physician's clinical observations
(C) suggest that government should eliminate ambiguities in its reproductive freedom
agenda
(D) show that non-legal principles can affect subsequent legal decisions
(E) strengthen the notion that the National Reproductive Policy Act needs to be modified
9. The author suggests which one of the following about abortion methods that
predated the development of the partial birth procedure?
(A) They are considered to be completely ineffective in protecting women's health.
(B) President Kennedy's National Reproductive Policy Act was based on their success.
(C) Many reproductive freedom professionals are not satisfied with the results produced by
these methods.
(D) They are often difficult to apply because they depend on precise time limitations.
(E) The best features of these methods should be integrated into the partial birth
process.
10. Which of the following words, as it appears in the passage, best supports the
author's view of the role of non-legal components in the risk assessment process?
(A) improvement (line 16)
(B) neutral (line 20)
(C) adverse (line 35)
(D) opportunity (line 38)
(E) underlie (line 54)
11. The passage's reference to the "factual and scientific basis" of abortion rights
process in line 17 serves which of the following functions?
(A) It explains the government's unwillingness to choose between older methods and the assessment of newer ones.
(B) It outlines the differences among reproductive freedomists over the practicality of visual
observation techniques.
(C) It underscores the belief of reproductive freedomists that risk assessment is a useful method for evaluating new procedures.
(D) It introduces birth control policy choices for which there is no a priori assessment method.
(E) It highlights the attitude of reproductive freedomists toward the National Reproductive Policy Act.
12. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) comparing risk assessment of new procedures with earlier abortion methods
(B) explaining why government should make explicit the ethical choices involved in
reproductive freedom choices
(C) highlighting government's inability to deal effectively with reproductive freedom issues
(D) reviewing the evolution of abortion methods over the past two decades
(E) proposing a new method for reproductive freedom that incorporates the best features of risk assessment
Answers and Explanations for Reading Passages
Passage 1
1. C is the correct answer. This is a main idea question and choice C matches the passage's topic and scope. Choices A, D and E are too narrow and limited, while B distorts the author's tone.
2. A is correct. Although the question asks you to infer, it is actually a description question. Choice A is suggested in the passage's first sentence. Neither B nor C is ever suggested, while D contradicts the passage. E is tricky, but distorts the passage.
3. E is the correct choice to this inference question. It corresponds to information in paragraphs 2 and 3. Choice A is not indicated by the passage, while choice C distorts it. D seems to contradict the passage. This is a difficult question, as the correct answer does not appear in immediately surrounding lines. In this case, the answer is suggested at the end of the previous paragraph.
4. A is correct. This is a challenging detail question with no line reference. Choice A paraphrases information at the end of paragraph 3. Choices B and C are inconsistent, while D and E are never suggested.
5. B is the correct answer. Although the question includes the word "assumption", it is actually a description question. A , D and E mention irrelevant information, while C discusses an unrelated fact. While all the choices are factually accurate, only B contains the relevant information.
Passage 2
6. Choice C correctly and elegantly sums up the author's skepticism. Choice A contradicts the author's view, while B violates the actual timeline of events. Choice D totally misses the ethical question, while E goes too far.
7. Choice A is correct. All other components appear explicitly in the four wrong choices.
8. Choice D is correct. Choices A and B refer to earlier efforts, while C comes at the very end of the passage. E has no connection with either risk assessment or the line in question.
9. Choice C is easily inferable from the passage. Choice A goes too far, while B and E aren't supported by the passage. Choice D is simply incorrect.
10. Choice E best captures the main idea. Choices A and B are not improvements, while D is too positive. Choice C is tempting, but does not capture the idea as well as E.
11. Choice C is correct. Choice A is not mentioned in the passage, while B refers to
a topic on which the passage's reproductive freedomists are undivided. Choices D and E come at incorrect points in the passage to make sense.
12. Choice B well captures the overall concept of the passage. Choice A pushes too far, while C, D and E all miss the heart of the passage.
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